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ning principle, fL = fR. Since IC, is the same in both, we can write fL (t, i0, IL ) = fR (t', iO, IR ) for some constant i0. By the twinning principle, we assume t = t'.
Here is where free will comes in. If and experimenter has free will to decide which triple will be asked about and in which order the orthogonal directions will be asked about without influence of the past history of the universe, then fL is not determined by IL and fR isn't determined by IR as the experimenter can choose to measure the same triple in both particles. So we get the results fL (t, i0 ) = fR (t, i0 ) = f0 (t). So this function is only determined by the triple measured.
So by the twinning axiom, we get f0 (a, b, c) = f0(b, a, c), so we know the answer on the direction measured of the particle is independent on the order in which the question was asked. This means that f0 spits out a constant value for a single direction of the particle we'll call a and that the direction of a is only dependent on the direction of chosen measurement. The implication here is that a function spitting out the spin squared on a chosen angle of spin measurement is well-defined, which also means this function is well-defined on a sphere with the properties of the orthogonal angles including two ones
and a zero from the spin axiom and this entire sphere is determined.
But this is wrong. A particle's behavior is only based on the behavior available to it and if the experimenter has free will, he can choose which angle to measure next.
Yeah. I got lost at the end. But it seemed to make sense. If we have free will, then so do particles. The basic underlying idea was that quantum physics could not have a classical explanation to describe the behavior of particles at a subatomic level. Although this has been examined and theorized before, this proof is unique in that it requires so little base information to achieve the theorem's end.
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